Q01 - Question
A customer is planning user acceptance testing (UAT) for a finance and operations apps implementation that includes integrations, printing, workflows, and warehouse devices. The customer wants UAT results that support the Go-live Readiness Review. Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Multiple choice
- A. Complete performance testing and test integrations, printing, workflows, and warehouse devices in a Tier-2 or higher sandbox environment in the Microsoft-managed subscription.
- B. Complete UAT on a downloaded VHD that developers also use for demos, because its topology matches production.
- C. Test with migrated data, including master data and opening balances, and with users who are assigned the correct default and custom security roles.
- D. Test all business processes with a system administrator account to avoid access issues during testing.
A and C are correct.
Explanation: Performance testing in a Tier-2 or higher environment is a prerequisite for the Go-live Readiness Review. Test integrations, printing, workflows, and warehouse devices in the sandbox environment, because Tier-1 topology differs from production. Use migrated data, including master data and opening balances, even if the data isn't final. Use the correct default and custom security roles that are assigned to users.
B is incorrect: Tier-1 environment topology differs from production, and system performance can't be measured on local or privately hosted VMs. An environment that developers also use for demos can't be considered complete for testing.
D is incorrect: UAT must use the correct security roles that are assigned to users. A system administrator account doesn't validate the default and custom roles.
Q02 - Question
You are preparing design documentation for a finance and operations apps implementation for a retail distributor. The company processes most of its orders in the last quarter of the year. The project sponsor asks you to keep the sizing estimates low so the budget is approved quickly. What should you do?
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Single choice
- A. Record realistic transaction volumes across the year, including seasonality and peak activity periods, and use them to guide license, subscription, and technical requirements.
- B. Base the sizing estimates on the transaction volume of the current month, because it is the most recent data available.
- C. Use the lower estimates that the sponsor requests, and revise the requirements after go-live if performance issues occur.
- D. Postpone the review of existing network requirements and architecture until the projected go-live date is confirmed.
A is correct.
Explanation: The evidence states that it is important to be honest about numbers, possibilities, and information in this phase to set the project up for success. You must consider the size of the company, transactions throughout the year, and seasonality to guide the business through the licenses, subscriptions, and technical requirements.
B is incorrect: Basing estimates on a single month does not account for seasonality or when the company is most active, which is required for accurate sizing.
C is incorrect: Using artificially low estimates conflicts with the requirement to be honest about numbers and possibilities, and it fails to properly guide the business on technical requirements.
D is incorrect: Existing network requirements and architecture are explicitly listed as additional items to consider for development and design, so they should not be postponed.
Q03 - Question
Several developers work on the same finance and operations apps project. A developer has finished a customization in Visual Studio and is ready to check in code through Team Explorer. Which two actions should the developer perform before checking in? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Multiple choice
- A. Perform a Get Latest process to merge code that other developers checked in.
- B. Schedule downtime to apply the change to the production environment.
- C. Perform a local build to verify that the code does not disturb the Azure DevOps repository.
- D. Create a deployment package in the developer environment and apply it directly to production.
A and C are correct.
Explanation: When several developers work on one project, perform a Get Latest process to merge new code from other developers. Then perform a local build to verify that your code does not disturb what is in the Azure DevOps repository. After both steps, check in your code by using Team Explorer.
B is incorrect: Scheduling production downtime happens after a deployable package is built and applied to at least one sandbox environment in the same project. It is not a step before check-in.
D is incorrect: A build pipeline in Azure DevOps creates the deployable package from checked-in code, and developers generally do not deploy their own code. A package must be applied to at least one sandbox environment before you can schedule a production update.
Q04 - Question
A manufacturing company must meet strict regulatory and compliance requirements. It decides to deploy Dynamics 365 Finance + Operations (on-premises) in its own datacenter. The IT team must plan the responsibilities it takes on with this choice. Which two tasks must the IT team plan to own? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Multiple choice
- A. Configure high-availability solutions for the deployment.
- B. Rely on Microsoft to apply continuous updates on a consistent, predictable cadence.
- C. Configure sandbox environments for the deployment.
- D. Rely on Microsoft to fully manage the ERP service as a software as a service (SaaS) offering.
A and C are correct.
Explanation: When you choose Finance + Operations (on-premises), your organization owns tasks that Microsoft would otherwise carry out. These tasks include configuring high-availability solutions, disaster recovery solutions, and sandbox environments.
B is incorrect: Continuous updates on a consistent, predictable cadence are a benefit of cloud deployments. With an on-premises deployment, you deploy and manage the application in your own datacenter.
D is incorrect: A fully Microsoft-managed SaaS service describes a cloud deployment. An on-premises deployment runs locally within the customer's datacenter.
Q05 - Question
A developer moves from a Cloud Hosted Environment to a Unified Developer Experience (UDE) developer environment provisioned in the Power Platform admin center. The developer builds X++ code locally in Visual Studio. Then the developer expects to test the changes immediately in the environment. What must the developer do before the customizations can be used?
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Single choice
- A. Provision a Cloud-hosted environment in an Azure subscription by using Lifecycle Services.
- B. Submit a database refresh service request in Lifecycle Services.
- C. Deploy and synchronize the package to the cloud environment.
- D. Run the Get-DeploymentSettings.ps1 script on the primary domain controller.
C is correct.
Explanation: UDE developer environments function more like Tier-2+ environments and run on Azure SQL. You must deploy and synchronize customizations before you can use them. Build the X++ code locally, deploy and synchronize the package to the cloud, and then run and debug the code in the same environment.
A is incorrect: Cloud-hosted environments are the traditional one-box development model. Provisioning one doesn't make your changes available in the UDE environment.
B is incorrect: A database refresh copies data. It doesn't deploy or synchronize your X++ customizations.
D is incorrect: The Get-DeploymentSettings.ps1 script applies to setting up on-premises environments through Lifecycle Services. It doesn't apply to UDE environments managed in the Power Platform admin center.
Q06 - Question
You are designing the branching strategy for a finance and operations apps implementation that has few customizations. The team must be able to work on multiple code projects at once and move code to production in a controlled flow. Which two actions should you take? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Multi-select
- A. Create a separate branch for every developer and every environment at project start so the structure never needs to change.
- B. Start with at least three branches: one for development, one for testing, and one for releasing code to production.
- C. Deploy urgent fixes from the development environment directly to production to avoid the testing and release branches.
- D. Keep the branching structure as simple as possible, and expand it only as the implementation requires.
B and D are correct.
Explanation: The evidence states that you should keep your branching structure as simple as possible and expand the strategy only as needed. It also recommends starting with at least a three-branch strategy: one for development, one for testing, and one for releasing code to the production instance.
A is incorrect: Creating a complex structure for every developer and environment contradicts the principle of keeping the structure as simple as possible. The evidence also notes that branching strategies can change throughout the implementation.
C is incorrect: The evidence specifies that code must be deployed into a Tier 2 Standard and Acceptance Test environment and selected as a release candidate before it can be promoted to the production environment.
Q07 - Question
Your team is updating its finance and operations apps environments to a new application version. You already ran a local, full build on an updated cloud-hosted development environment and fixed the Best Practice warnings and errors. You must now move a cloud-hosted build and test environment to the new version. What should you do?
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Single choice
- A. Update the build and test environment in place by using Apply updates under the Maintain menu.
- B. Redeploy the build and test environment on the new version.
- C. Stop the build and test environment in Azure, and then apply the update package.
- D. Use Move database to copy the development environment database to the build and test environment.
B is correct.
Explanation: Redeploy non-development cloud-hosted environment topologies, such as build and test, on the new version rather than updating them in place.
A is incorrect: Updating in place is the approach to avoid for non-development cloud-hosted topologies during a version update.
C is incorrect: Stopping an environment directly in Azure doesn't update the deployment status in Lifecycle Services, and it doesn't move the environment to the new version.
D is incorrect: Move database is available for Tier 2 and higher environments. It moves database backups and refreshes, and it doesn't update the application version.
Q08 - Question
Your team created a deployable package in a build environment and uploaded it to the Asset Library in a Lifecycle Services project. The project manager wants to apply the package to the production environment as soon as possible. What must happen before the package can be deployed to production?
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Single choice
- A. The package must deploy successfully to at least one sandbox environment in the same Lifecycle Services project.
- B. The package must be marked as Release candidate, so that the sandbox deployment can be skipped.
- C. The package must be rebuilt in the development environment instead of the build environment.
- D. The code must be merged into the Production branch so that it deploys to production without scheduling.
A is correct.
Explanation: A deployment to a production environment requires the package to deploy successfully to at least one sandbox environment in the same project. Validate the package in a sandbox first, and then schedule the production deployment.
B is incorrect: Marking a package as Release candidate shows that it's ready for production deployment. It doesn't replace the required successful sandbox deployment.
C is incorrect: You can create deployable packages from the development environment. However, Microsoft recommends a build environment to create packages that contain all changes, and neither option removes the sandbox requirement.
D is incorrect: The Production branch holds source code exactly as it's deployed in production. To move code between environments, you must create a deployable package and apply it through Lifecycle Services.
Q09 - Question
A new finance and operations apps implementation uses Git and Azure DevOps. The team wants each change validated before it is merged, and it wants to reduce manual handoffs when it promotes code from development to UAT and production. Which approach should you recommend?
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Single choice
- A. Have developers commit directly to the release branch, and upload each package manually before you apply it to every environment.
- B. Build deployable packages on developer machines, and apply them to each environment by using Maintain > Apply updates.
- C. Use feature branches with pull requests that trigger validation pipelines, CI builds on merge, and release pipelines with environment approvals.
- D. Skip build validation, and rely on user acceptance testing in UAT to find compile and best practice errors.
C is correct.
Explanation: The evidence states that in a Git-based workflow, developers commit code to feature branches, pull requests trigger validation pipelines, merged changes trigger CI builds, and release pipelines deliver validated packages to target environments. This model supports branch policies, build validation gates, and automated quality enforcement.
A is incorrect: Having developers commit directly to the release branch and manually uploading packages bypasses the automated validation pipelines and CI/CD automation recommended in the evidence.
B is incorrect: Building packages locally and applying them manually does not utilize the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipelines required to automate validation and environment promotion.
D is incorrect: The evidence states that continuous integration (CI) automatically includes model compilation and best practice validation during the build process, rather than skipping it.
Q10 - Question
A solution architect is designing a Dataverse integration for finance and operations apps. A Power Apps app must read finance and operations data in real time. The design must not duplicate the data in Dataverse. Which integration tool should the architect use?
Domain: Plan the architecture and solution design (5–10%) Type: Single choice
- A. Dual-write
- B. Virtual tables
- C. Export to Azure Data Lake
- D. Inventory Visibility
B is correct.
Explanation: Virtual tables provide real-time data access without duplication. This approach meets both requirements for the Power Apps app.
A is incorrect: Dual-write synchronizes data bidirectionally between finance and operations apps and Dataverse. This approach stores the data in both places, which doesn't meet the no-duplication requirement.
C is incorrect: Export to Azure Data Lake exports data to Azure Data Lake, not to Dataverse. This add-in is retired, and the service permanently stops on November 30, 2026.
D is incorrect: Inventory Visibility is an add-in that tracks on-hand inventory across global locations. It isn't a general Dataverse integration tool for finance and operations data.